(Galatians 3:13.)Christ hath redeemed us ....
That sounds pretty active to me. How has Christ "passively" redeemed anyone?
Jesus said that "there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars [etc.]" And he said that "when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh."
So what "draweth nigh" is "a mechanism for the removal [of] sin"? How can that be, if Christ has already redeemed (some of) us? For that matter, what does it even mean?
Anyway, Christian doctrine is a hopeless muddle of irreconcilable inconsistencies. Raising them was not my point.
My point is simply that
(a) according to the Roman Catholic Church (whose opinions do not constrain my own), redemption is, inter alia, "deliverance from the slavery of sin"; and
(b) the Pope says that even atheists have been redeemed;
(c) therefore, even atheists have been delivered from the slavery of sin.
Which is a far cry from what the RCC has said about atheists in the past.