What we have here can be summed up quite simply: In
dgs49's view of constitutional law, a result that accords with his public-policy preferences is constitutional, and a result that does not accord with his public-policy preferences is unconstitutional.
This posting goes into matters of constitutional law in a bit -- not much, really, considering the length of a posting attempting to deal exhaustively with those matters -- of detail. But for those disinclined to get into that nitty-gritty, the shorthand version is that
dgs49's constitutional "reasoning" amounts to no more than this:
(1)
dgs49 likes the result = the result is constitutional;
(2)
dgs49 dislikes the result = the result is unconstitutional.
That is not reasoning. It is merely bald assertion. And in my opinion, it should be given all the weight that bald assertion deserves, and no more.
A Shorter Challenge For dgs49 Because He Is
Evidently Unable To Answer The Previous Challenge
Unsurprisingly,
dgs49 has declined to address the challenge previously made. So here is a shorter one:
If "the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States," which the Fourteenth Amendment explicitly prohibits the States from "abridg[ing]," are not (or do not include) the rights recognized in the Bill of Rights, then what are they?
No irrelevant wanderings, no blathering about results which you think unconstitutional simply because they do not accord with your policy preferences,
just, for once, answer the question: What are the "privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States"?
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The Previous Challenge, Which dgs49 Is Evidently Unable To Answer
The previous challenge was this:
Andrew D wrote:Put up or shut up, dgs49. If you can explain why the application of the Bill of Rights to the States should be analyzed under the Due Process Clause rather than under the Privileges or Immunities Clause, please do so.
Or if you can explain why the application of the Bill of Rights to the States should be analyzed under the Privileges or Immunities Clause rather than under the Due Process Clause, please do so.
Or if you can explain why the application of the Bill of Rights to the States should be analyzed under both of those clauses, please do so.
Or if you can explain why the application of the Bill of Rights to the States should not be analyzed under either of those clauses, please do so.
And what we have got from
dgs49 on the subject at issue is, as usual, nothing.
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What We Get Instead Of Any Substantive Answer
Instead, we get:
(1) a totally irrelevant statement about "advisory opinions," flying in the face of the fact that the opinion which I cited is in no way "advisory" (twice I asked
dgs49 "What part of that is an advisory opinion?" but no answer to that question has been forthcoming);
(2) a tangential remark to the uncontroversial effect that Presidents, Senators, and Representatives should consider for themselves the constitutionality of proposed legislation which they are considering;
(3) the assertion of a position about the applicability of the Bill of Rights to the States which (a) contradicts more than a century of law -- the first application of a portion of the Bill of Rights to the States was made by a
conservative Supreme Court when FDR was in his mid-teens and the New Deal was some forty years in the future -- and (b) was not espoused by
even one Senator or Representative during the congressional debates over the Fourteenth Amendment; and
(4) a gratuitous slap at lawyers in which he (a) contends that lawyers, simply by virtue of being lawyers, should be stripped of their right as citizens to participate in the process of making public-policy decisions; (b) admits that in his own work as a lawyer, he has produced nothing of any value; and (c) expresses his desperately flailing -- and, lamentably for him but happily for the rest of us -- hope that other lawyers also produce nothing of any value.
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A Completely Irrelevant Assertion About Advisory Opinions
dgs49 wrote:As you very well know, my comment about "advisory opinions" was a reference to the fact that the USSC is constrained to hear only real cases, and may not provide any binding guidance on new (or even proposed) legislation.
Which is what makes it irrelevant. In
McDonald v. City of Chicago, the Supreme Court decided a "real case[]" -- whether certain municipal gun-control laws were unconstitutional. Thomas argued "[could] not agree that [the Second Amendment] is enforceable against the States through a clause that speaks only to 'process.' Instead, the right to keep and bear arms is a privilege of American citizenship that applies to the States through the Fourteenth Amendment's Privileges or Immunities Clause." The plurality, however, saw "no need to reconsider that interpretation here. For many decades, the question of the rights protected by the Fourteenth Amendment against state infringement has been analyzed under the Due Process Clause of that Amendment and not under the Privileges or Immunities Clause. We therefore decline to disturb the
Slaughter-House holding."
Had the plurality agreed with Thomas, the substantive law regarding the application of the Bill of Rights would have been changed. There is simply nothing "advisory" about the opinion on that point.
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The Uncontroversial Opinion That Congress And The President Should Consider The Constitutionality Of Legislation Which They Are Making
[Tangentially, I would say that most Congresspersons and elected executives fail totally in their obligation to uphold the Constitution when they make no independent analysis of the constitutionality of what they are doing].
I agree. Still, in our system, the Supreme Court has the final say. (
See U.S. Const., Art. III;
see also, e.g., Federalist No. 78.)
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Ravings (a) Contrary To What Ratifiers of the Fourteenth Amendment Said They Were Doing And (b) Expressing A View Not Adopted By So Much As One Senator Or Representative During The Congressional Debate Over The Fourteenth Amendment
As for the application of what have come to be deemed fundamental rights of the first ten Amendments to the states, there is nothing magical about the Fourteenth Amendment that compels the current state of "constitutional law," whether individual rights are said to be justified by the "due process" clause, the "priveleges and immunities" clause, or anything else contained in the 14th Amendment.
As previously mentioned, many of the people involved in crafting the Fourteenth Amendment believed that it would apply the Bill of Rights to the States, and they said so. You should consider reading what they had to say. (You might find it useful to begin with the material I cited previously.)
And when the Fourteenth Amendment was debated in Congress in 1866, "no senator or representative explicitly contradicted them on this point ...." (
The Oxford Companion to the Supreme Court of the United States (2d ed. 2005) at p. 491.) It is also worth observing that "especially in the period between 1835 and 1866, rights in the Bill of Rights had often been described as 'privileges' or 'immunities'" (
ibid.).
Certainly, the made-up "right of privacy" would have been a better fit for the 9th than the emanations and penumbras on which it now precariously sits.
I agree that cases such as
Roe v. Wade would have been better reasoned had they rested more squarely on the Ninth Amendment. (
Roe does, however, rest in part on the Ninth Amendment.) But rights recognized under the Ninth Amendment are not "made up". On the contrary, they are recognized as rights "retained by the people" despite not being included in "[t]he enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights". (U.S. Const., Amdt. IX.) The mere fact that you disagree with judicial decisions does not make those decisions exercises in anti-constitutionalism.
The speciousness of contemporary constitutional scholarship is easily illustrated by the fact that prevailing constitutional thinking uniformly ignores - and in effect denies the existence of - the first five words of the First Amendment, to wit, "Congress shall make no law..."
Prevailing constitutional thinking does not ignore the opening words of the First Amendment. In fact, it is universally recognized that before the Fourteenth Amendment, nothing in the Bill of Rights applied to the States. The Second through Eighth Amendments are not explicitly limited to the U.S. government. But it was understood, nonetheless, that those amendments also did not apply to the States, even though they did not say "Congress". And the Supreme Court unanimously so held in
Barron v. Baltimore, 32 U.S. 243 (1833).
Prevailing constitutional thinking also recognizes that
the Fourteenth Amendment changed that. As stated above, various framers of the Fourteenth Amendment said that the Fourteenth Amendment would apply the Bill of Rights to the States. And
not even one Senator or Representative said that the Fourteenth Amendment would not apply the Bill of Rights to the States.
You just don't want the Fourteenth Amendment to apply to the States. You just wish that there were some basis for that proposition.
Newsflash: "
dgs49 doesn't like it" and "it's unconstitutional" are not synonymous.
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The Claims About Lawyers: They Should Be Stripped Of Their Right To Participate Equally In Decisions About Public Policy, Because They Product Nothing Of Value
Although we have become indoctrinated to think that lawyers are necessary to make public policy, when you think about it, the opposite is clearly the case. Indeed, being a lawyer (and nothing else) should be a disqualification for Congress. Congress, as the developer of public policy, should be made up of businessmen, farmers, investors, workers, engineers - in short, people who ACTUALLY DO THINGS and are affected by the policies. Lawyers do nothing, produce nothing, and should have no say in the development of the policies themselves.
Actually, it is only if one
refuses to think about it that "the opposite is clearly the case." In reality, the views of lawyers are, in a partially democratic society, exactly as "necessary to make public policy" as are the views of others. The contrary conclusion is not derived from "think[ing] about it"; it is not derived from anything at all. It is nothing but yet another example of
dgs49's method of pseudo-reasoning: Start with the conclusion, and refuse to address anything that might run contrary to that conclusion.
Lawyers do nothing, produce nothing ....
It may well be that
dgs49's work as a lawyer "produce[d] nothing". And it may well be that in his work as a lawyer, he "d[id] nothing".
My clients, however, do not pay me to do nothing. Nor do they pay me to produce nothing.
I go to the doctor with some problem or other. The doctor assesses the situation in which I find myself. The doctor makes a recommendation about what I should do in that situation. Has the doctor "do[ne] nothing, produce[d] nothing"?
My client comes to me with some problem or other. I assess the situation in which my client finds itself. I make a recommendation about what my client should do in that situation. Have I "do[ne] nothing, produce[d] nothing"?
Isn't it clear that
dgs49 simply has something against lawyers? And given that he is a lawyer, isn't it clear that he has something against himself?
Therapy seems in order. And I think that there are medications for pathological self-loathing.
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Conclusion
There is nothing in
dgs49's most recent spewings in this thread that militates even slightly against what I have said before:
By now, everyone on this board has seen over and over and over what your approach to constitutional law is: "If I agree with it, it's constitutional, and if I don't, it's not."
If there is anything more than that to
dgs49's constitutional "reasoning," he is keeping it to himself.
Reason is valuable only when it performs against the wordless physical background of the universe.