You then go on and on as if I said the government should be stepping in. I'm asking YOU to recognize what sharia law is - YOU.
the entire premise of this thread, as captioned in the title, is to have the jurisdiction of the sharia courts limited by the government, even if the parties consent to it. What I (or you or anyone else for that matter) think about the sharia courts is immaterial IMHO; indeed, I'm not even a proponent of commercial arbitration by secular groups like the AAA for a number of reasons. But people either have the freedom to act as they wish or they do not. I mioght think that they are jerks submitting to such "authorities", but what does that matter?
My understanding is that in parts of the orthodox jewish community some will permit rabbinical courts to settle civil disputes (even divorce in some cases) not just from a religious perspective, but for civil purposes as well. the courts can determine issues like support, etc. I'm not certain if their are any christian courts like these, but I do know some denominations like the Assemblies of God and the Pentacostals encourage mediation of disputes between members in front of the clergy or all members. Now this is a little different as mediation is generally nonbinding, but I'd be surprised if some Christian denominations did not offer arbitration services as well (which is what any private court, in effect does); I would bet the Amish and even some Moravian communities do just that.
I think the reason we see it more among orthodox jews and stricter moslems is because these religions pervade every day life to a level which christianity usually does not. So many in these communities are more willing to accept religious domination of their cicil communities. So long as it is consensual, IMHO it is not my concern.